गाेवा लाेकसेवा आयाेग परीक्षा पूर्वतयारी - ३०

1 Question Description Directions : Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions beside-

A + B (5) = A is 10 m to the NORTH of B

A - B (7) = A is 12 m to the SOUTH of B

A * B (12) = A is 17 m to the EAST of B

A / B (11) = A is 16 m to the West of B.

R / P (13), P / Q (19) , S + Q (5), U / S (19), U – T (5)

What is the shortest distance between S and P?

A 26m

B 25m

C 28m

D 23m

E None of the above

Correct Answer A

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2 Question Description How many pairs of letters are there in the word NURSING which have as many letters between them as in the alphabet?

A One

B Three

C Five

D Six

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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3 Question Description Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the question given beside.

In a code language,

start walk stop diet is coded as 8% #21 3$7 *6

walk rest start bite is coded as #9 *6 2@9 #21

stop work diet rest is coded as ^78 8% 3$7 #9

bite rest start diet is coded as 2@9 #9 *6 3$7

Find the code for 'work diet'?

A 3$7 #9

B ^78 3$7

C ^78 #9

D 3$7 *6

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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4 Question Description Directions: Each of the following consists of a question and some statements given below it. You have to decide

whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

What is the code for 'win like never'?

Statement I: "record inning win" is coded as "fe gu pu" and "party like win" is coded as "ho sa fe".

Statement II: "never steal money" is coded as "ca mo pi" and "gamble money winner" is coded as "be pi ta".

Statement III: "never forget inning" is coded as "mo gu je" and "steal party tonight" is coded as "sa de ca".

A If the data in statement I and II together is sufficient.

B If the data in statement II and III together is sufficient.

C If the data in all the statements together is necessary.

D If the data in all the statements together is not sufficient.

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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5 Question Description Directions: Following questions are based upon the word series given below.

DEN, RAT, EAR, OWL, CUB

If E is added in the end of the words that start with consonants and B is added in the beginning of the words that start

with vowel then how many meaningful English words can be formed so?

A 2

B 5

C 3

D 4

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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6 Question Description Directions: Study the following questions carefully and choose the right answer:

Statement :

Postal rates have been increased to meet the deficit.

Assumptions :

I. The present rates are very low.

II. If the rates are not increased, the deficit cannot be met.

A if only assumption I is implicit

B if only assumption II is implicit

C if either I or II is implicit

D if neither I nor II is implicit

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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7 Question Description Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to study the question

and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to answer the question.

What is the speed of the train?

I. The train crosses a tree in 13 seconds.

II. The train crosses a platform of length 250 metres in 27 seconds.

III. The train crosses another train running in the same direction in 32 seconds.

A I and II only

B II and III only

C I and III only

D Any two of the three

E None of the above

Correct Answer A

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8 Question Description Which is the odd one out?

A optimize

B retrograde

C ameliorate

D regenerate

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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9 Question Description Direction: In each of the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given pair on both side of '::' .

One word is given on another side of '::' while another word is to be found from the given options, having the same

relation with this word as the words of the given pair . Choose the correct word from the following options.

Hair : Bald : : Crop : ?

A Field

B Farmer

C Rain

D Barren

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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10 Question Description Under Sec.4 of Cigarette and Tobacco products ( prohibition of advertisement, and regulation of trade and commerce, production,

supply and distribution) Act 2003, “ in a hotel having ------------rooms or a restaurant having seeting capacity of --------persons or

more and in the airports , a separate provision of smoking area or a space may be made

A 20 rooms and 30 persons

B 30 rooms and 30 persons

C 30 rooms and 20 persons

D 20 rooms and 25 persons

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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11 Question Description Which of the following Day is called “Tillers Day” under Sec.2(23A) of the Goa Daman and Diu Agricultural Tenancy Act

A 20 April 1976

B 30 April 1976

C 20 April 1975

D 30 April 1975

E None of the above

Correct Answer A

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12 Question Description Under Sec.12 of the The Goa, Daman, and Diu Mundkars ( Protection from Eviction) Act 1975, If neither the mundkar nor any

member of his family has been residing in the dwelling house for a continuous period of ------------- , mundkar can be evicted from

his dwelling house .

A Six months

B One year

C Two years

D Three years

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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13 Question Description Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section_________of Cr.P.C

A 201

B 204

C 205

D 200

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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14 Question Description Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to the nature of liability of the landlords and tenants

A Liability to pay land revenue in respect of the land is that of the landlord

B Liability to pay irrigation cess is that of the landlord

C Liability to pay any other rate, tax, fee, cess or other charge levelled as per law is that of the tenant

D In case of Khajan and Kher lands, duties and responsibilities of carrying out maintenance, repair and conservancy of banks, bunds,

rivers or other sources of irrigation are that of the tenant.

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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15 Question Description The Board of film certification under the Cinematograph Act 1952 shall consist of a chairman and ------------ other members

appointed by the Central Government.

A Not less than ten and not more than twenty

B Not less than twelve and not more than twenty five

C Not less than fifteen and not more than twenty five

D Not less than fifteen and not more than twenty

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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16 Question Description The affairs of each comunidade shall be managed by an managing committee chosen every ------------ in the manner prescribed in

the Code of Comunidade.

A One year

B Two years

C Three years

D Five years

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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17 Question Description Which of the following chapter of the Land Revenue Code deals with the powers and duties of survey officers

A Chapter II

B Chapter III

C Chapter IV

D Chapter V

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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18 Question Description What is the limitation period prescribed to hold a formal inquiry, to decide any dispute with respect to any property or right in the

property which is claimed by the Government or claimed by any person against the Government, by collector or authorised officer

under Goa Land Revenue Code.

A Six months

B One year

C Three years

D No time limit

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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19 Question Description The right to private property was dropped from the list of fundamental rights in the year

A 1976

B 1977

C 1978

D 1979

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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20 Question Description With regard to Disposal of Intestate Occupancies under Sec.23 of the Goa Land Revenue Code, if no claimant appears within -------

----- , the collector may sell the right of the deceased occupant in the occupancy by an auction .

A Two years

B Three years

C One year

D Six months

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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21 Question Description Which Article of the Constitution starts with "Subject to public order, morality & health...",

A Article 14

B Article 15

C Article 25

D Article 28

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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22 Question Description The offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are

A Cognizable and Bailable

B Non-Cognizable and non-Bailable

C Cognizable and non- Bailable

D Non-Cognizable and Bailable

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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23 Question Description The Goa Daman and Diu Mundkars( Protection from Eviction) 1975 came into force

A 12 March 1976

B 24 December 1976

C 4 September 1976

D 22 February 1976

E None of the above

Correct Answer A

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24 Question Description Under Sec.78 of the Goa Land Revenue Code 1968 A settlement of land revenue of agricultural land shall remain in force for a

period of ------------and on the expiry of such period, the settlement shall continue to remain in force until the commencement of the 

term of a fresh settlement.

A Twelve years

B Fifteen Years

C Twenty years

D Thirty years

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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25 Question Description When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of

natural justice it is called a writ of :

A Certiorary

B Mandamus

C Quo Warranto

D Habeas Corpus

E None of the above

Correct Answer A

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26 Question Description I n Case the landlord wishes to terminate the tenancy on any of the grounds mentioned in Sec.11 of the Goa Daman and Diu

Agricultural Tenancy Act , he should give a -------- notice in writing to then tenant intimating his decision to terminate the tenancy.

A Six Months

B 90 days

C 60 days

D 30 days

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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27 Question Description In case the tenant opts to pay purchase price in instalments under Sec.18C of the Goa Damn and Diu Agricultural Tenancy Act, the

first instalment should be paid within six months from the date of the order. The Next instalments are to be paid within a period of -

-----------from the previous instalments.

A Four Months

B Six Months

C One year

D Three years

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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28 Question Description Under Section 21 of the Cr. P. C., 1973, a Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by the

A Central Government

B High Court

C Supreme Court

D State Government.

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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29 Question Description Which of the following section defines Mundkar under The Goa, Daman, and Diu Mundkars ( Protection from Eviction) Act 1975

A Sec.2 (m)

B Sec.2(n)

C Sec.2(o)

D Sec.2(q)

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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30 Question Description Which of the following section of the Goa, Daman and Diu Mundkars ( Protection from Eviction) Act 1975 deals with Bar to

attachment, seizure or sale of the interest of Mundkar in his dwelling house in execution of a decree or order of a Civil Court

A Sec.17

B Sec.18

C Sec.19

D Sec.20

E None of the above

Correct Answer C

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31 Question Description Article 31 C was inserted in the Constitution of India by way of the -------------Amendment.

A 24 Amendment

B 25 Amendment

C 26 Amendment

D 27 Amendment

E None of the above

Correct Answer B

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32 Question Description Art.31 B of Constitution of India deals with validation of Acts and Regulation specified under ninth schedule, which was inserted

by

A First Amendment

B Second Amendment

C Third Amendment

D Fourth Amendment

E None of the above

Correct Answer A

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33 Question Description Which of the following lands are exempted from the scope of Goa, Diu and Daman Agricultural Tenancy Act

A Lands held by the Government

B Lands which are given to individuals who are rendering service to any religious/ Charitable/ educational institutions

C Land vested in the custodian of Evacuee property

D All of the above

E None of the above

Correct Answer D

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